Ownership and time - TranceAddict Forums

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Posted by trancaholic on Nov-30-2003 20:04:

Ownership and time

Quick question: How long do you reckon an occupying force should hold control of a land area, before it is the rightful owner? (Examples: North America, Greenland, Israel, Palestine, Kuwait, etc.) Do your time limit extend to non-land ownership (such as cultural artifacts)?

Posted by Yoepus on Nov-30-2003 20:44:

50 years for land, and 250 for cultural artifacts.

Posted by TranceGiant on Nov-30-2003 21:33:

Impossible to give you a general answer on that one. You could only say that politically a country ceases to exist in its old form as soon as the old regime is suffieciently replaced by a new one. The old order is simply not functioning anymore, it doesn't regulate people's lives and is therefore politically dead.

Culture is so complex and so is the question of a general "rule" as to when the occupier is the legitimate/rightful new owner. This would give it a moral touch, speaking of justice instead of simply recognizing facts (see paragraph above).

And since when do you call Israel occupied land?

Posted by DaveSZ on Nov-30-2003 21:57:

I can really only speak for North America, but the answer is after you have raped, murdered, brutalized, diplaced, or otherwise marginalized the indigenous population...

Then your descendants can write the history books.