if a=b,
then a-b=0
and you cannot divide by zero.

___________________
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the music is the sound we hear,
the beat is what we feel,
the trance is the resulting state of mind which one achieves
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and the beat become one.

i took that approach, but he's not too impressed by that hrm...

is there anything else you can see that flaws from what he presented? I mean..from first glance, it seems mathematically correct(his induction)....but theres something in there that doesnt make sens. I cant put my finger on it though, unless the only thign is the division issue..

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I think your problem is right here: Remove b2. OK? [a2-b2 = ab-b2]

I don't even know where b^2 comes from. We have a^2, as well as ab. Even if you had b^2 you cannot subtract that from ab since they are not like terms. I think you need to make substitutions so that your algerbra is suitable. But of course, once you make subs, everything will equal zero and will render your equation void.

I hate math, I'm going to play some chess.

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just wait for Noisician, he'll set things straight

(original eq)
a = b
(both sides mult through by a)
a^2 = ab

When with ab compared
a = b
ab = b^2

Are the same. Remove b2. OK? [a2-b2 = ab-b2]


a^2 = ab = b^2
(division to remove the middle term)
a/b = 0 = b/a

where a/b = -b/a
then
a^2/b = -b

a^2 = -1

therefore

a = sqrt(i) [you cannot take the sqrt of negative nums so you have to bust out the imaginary numbers algebra]




you were coming up with some odd shit. saying things factored and all that. following through the begining this is what i computed. Are you trying make up some theorum of sorts? if you are you need to lay off the green.

you're forgetting that ab=a^2=b^2 since a=b

hence it should be a^2=ab=B^2
remove b^2
therefore a^2-b^2=b^2-b^2=0

but even without that, a-b=0, so then it would be
(a+b)(0)=b(0)=0

so then your last equation would be 0=0

quote:

Originally posted by King_Mack Now each side contains a - b. [(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)] We'll divide through by a Minus b and olé

As mmilo said earlier, the division by 0 is where the flaw lies. First you have (a+b)*0=b*0=0, and so far the argument is a correct one. But after the division, you basically get (a+b)*0/0=b*0/0 which is not defined because 0/0 can be equal to anything.

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1+1=10

quote:

Originally posted by King_Mack i took that approach, but he's not too impressed by that hrm... is there anything else you can see that flaws from what he presented? I mean..from first glance, it seems mathematically correct(his induction)....but theres something in there that doesnt make sens. I cant put my finger on it though, unless the only thign is the division issue..

This explanation is correct. Dividing by zero invalidates the equation. Your friend's "proof" belongs to a whole class of such spurious explanations of false equalities.

quote:

Originally posted by DrUg_Tit0 As mmilo said earlier, the division by 0 is where the flaw lies. First you have (a+b)*0=b*0=0, and so far the argument is a correct one. But after the division, you basically get (a+b)*0/0=b*0/0 which is not defined because 0/0 can be equal to anything.

i confirm that too, there are a bunch of problems in computer & math textbooks that rely on this "division by 0" approach to have you find the error in the algorithm.

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Division by zero is illegal.

quote:

Originally posted by King_Mack i took that approach, but he's not too impressed by that hrm...

Impressed or not, you simply CAN NOT divide by zero. As soon as he does that his proof becomes invalid.

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