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Occrider, I understand and agree with your first point. Here's what I have to say on the second:
| quote: | Originally posted by occrider
The second issue I have with your model is equality. If I'm relatively well off, but I'm committing a crime to improve my material well-being, I'm more than likely to committ a white collar crime to improve my standing. A poor person, following the same motivations, is more likely to committ a "violent" crime to acheive the same results. I put violent in quotations because the poor person may have no ambitions to physically harm a person (such as a burglary) yet their crime is perceived as violent because it's tangibly physical. So why should rich people, who are guilty of the same fundamental crime of theft, be given greater latitude than poor people who lack the resources to be so "elegant" with their criminal acts? Regardless of whether you're stealing from a company or burglarizing someone's house ... regardless of whether you actually ruin their entire life-savings or only steal a few trinkets and mementos, you are fundamentally guilty of theft and thus should be subject to the same punishment. If a person is actually guilty of phsyically harming someone, well than we have the crime of assault and battery to tack on to their criminal sentence. |
(From now on I'm going to refer to non-violent theft to keep that confounding variable out of the way of my point)
I think punishment for stealing should not be equal, but equitable. Here's why: If a poor person gets caught stealing, getting jailtime might not even change the quality of their life. After all, they'll now get to work out at a gym with no membership cost, watch TV, and get free meals. However, if a rich person get's caught stealing through some company, they'll lose their social network, much of their wealth, and their job, which means they might not be able to make car or house payments and can lose both. If that is the case, then it seems that jailtime for the rich is more catastrophic than for those who were not well off to begin with.
I'm not advocating special or better treatment for those who are rich than those who are poor. But I do want to point out that (in psychological terms) jail is both a negative and positive form of punishment. This means that jail is the removal of a positive stimulus (quality of life outside and freedom are taken away), and the application of a negative stimulus (behind bars and severe living restrictions). So, I propose that based on the assumption that the quality of life of a rich person was better than a poor person, the idea that the rich have more to lose than the poor should be taken into consideration before coming up with a punishment plan.
In summary, if both a rich person and a poor person steal the same amount of money, punishment may be equal, but is it equitable?
Note and disclaimer: I don't fully agree with my above argument (funny I say that), but I'm arguing for it because I can't find a logical reason disagree with it. I guess the moral question is: What is the most logical form or punishment for anyone who commits the same non-violent crime? Should punishment for the same crime be equal for all? Or should punishment for the same crime be equitable to the extent that every person suffers to the same degree in comparison to the quality of their life prior to committing the crime?
Last edited by Jake Benson on Jan-30-2006 at 11:38
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