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Arbiter
Naked Power Organ



Registered: May 2002
Location:

More data is required than is currently available to draw any conclusions regarding the particular nature of the human will.

But I question the assumption that a choice made deterministically is less "free" than a choice made non-deterministically. Whether one reaches an ultimate decision based upon a deterministic or non-deterministic process, the choice still existed and was made freely.

Put another way: if we assume any sort of "free will" to exist in either case, then what we are "free from" must be external constraints. If we consider that internal constraints as well as external would preclude our will from being "free," then the limitation of our own intellect, among other things, would already exclude the possibility of a genuinely "free" will. Now, if our minds come to decisions deterministically, it is an internal constraint - an aspect of our state of being just as much as our limited ability to see all possible choices and, therefore, not a constraint which can be considered to be interfering with the "freedom" of our will.

One is not a prisoner simply because it never occurred to one to leave. Likewise, one is not a prisoner simply because one would never choose to leave.

Old Post Aug-11-2005 22:09 
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Renegade
____________/



Registered: May 2001
Location: Prague, Czech Republic

quote:
Originally posted by Arbiter
But I question the assumption that a choice made deterministically is less "free" than a choice made non-deterministically. Whether one reaches an ultimate decision based upon a deterministic or non-deterministic process, the choice still existed and was made freely.


Exactly. Whenever I hear strict-determinists categorise free-will as nothing but an empty illusion, I can only wonder what the difference between "illusory" choice and "real" choice is. Is there any practical difference between the two? Can we ever know if a choice is actually "real" or not? If so, on what basis can the choices we seem to experience be dismissed as entirely illusory? If it isn't choice we're experiencing exactly, then what is it?

Secondly, much of the deterministic argument seems to boil down to the assertion that conscious choices cannot possibly be made due to the fact that we are slaves to the neurological process that exist beyond our control. This view, if I'm reading it right, seems to be positing a bifurcation of brain and consciousness, where the "consciousness", as we experience it, is somehow separate from yet inexorably linked to the brain. To argue in this manner, however, is to miss the point: "we" are not controlled by neurological processes beyond our control, "we" are these same neurological processes. We are neither our brains nor an entity that resides within our brains, we are, simply, a electro-chemical process. Consciousness is to neurological activity what fire is to combusting material - "we" are the result of a process and the "we" begins and ends with this process.

I know this can't be very clear (it's 9.35am and I haven't slept yet - perhaps I'll be more lucid after a few hours sleep ) but my point is that saying, as the determinists do, that choice is necessarily illusory because "we" do not have any control over the processes that create that choice, is to miss the point. We are, ultimately, those processes that are making the choice. We cannot consciously alter these processes (which is perhaps what the determinists are arguing) but these process are our consciousness, they are who we are. The determinists would probably argue that it is the very fact that we cannot alter the nature of these processes that makes free choice an illusion, but I'll ask again: if choice is only illusory because we cannot transcend what we are (by going beyond the processes that constitute our consciousness and altering them), then what is to be gained by talking of a "real" state of choice that cannot ever be acheieved? Again, what is the practical difference between the choices we feel we are making and "real" choices?

Fuck it, I'm too tired. Bed time.

(Oh, and read up on Hume's compatibilism. That's more or less how I view the whole free will vs determinism debate.)


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Old Post Aug-11-2005 23:51  Australia
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Psy-T
Melody Klein



Registered: Jan 2003
Location: Haifa

very nice posts arbiter & renegade.
they address the issue of free will vs. physics completely and cover all grounds.

but what about free will vs. pleasure?
are we not always constrained to choose the option that we see as bringing us the most pleasure?


___________________
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Old Post Aug-12-2005 03:58  Israel
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Chris Larkin
Supreme tranceaddict



Registered: Jul 2005
Location: Wiltshire, England

We are constrained by instinct - the first to survive, the second to pass on genes. Pain and pleasure are just things that guide us on our way -

In order to survive, we need to feed. That's why, when you've eaten, you feel good - your body rewards you for doing something that will keep it alive.

In order to pass on our genes, we need to reproduce (no shit, Sherlock). That's why, when we do, we feel good - it's our body's way of encouraging us to do this again, and ultimately pass on more genes.

Adultery, although it might upset people, is actually good for the race, because it passes on genes - you may like to take a look at another thread about this theory. Also, as one clever person said "God gave men a brain and a penis - but only enough blood to use one at a time." Stuff like this is done without thinking of consequences. Therefore, we choose pleasure now, ignoring the chance of pain later. You could say that we choose what we think will bring the most pleasure, rather than what will.

Old Post Aug-12-2005 13:22  United Kingdom
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trancaholic
Danish Prophet of Doom



Registered: Oct 2000
Location: Aalborg

quote:
Originally posted by Renegade
I know this can't be very clear (it's 9.35am and I haven't slept yet - perhaps I'll be more lucid after a few hours sleep ) but my point is that saying, as the determinists do, that choice is necessarily illusory because "we" do not have any control over the processes that create that choice, is to miss the point. We are, ultimately, those processes that are making the choice. We cannot consciously alter these processes (which is perhaps what the determinists are arguing) but these process are our consciousness, they are who we are.

I'm not sure of what you mean, and most certainly not whether you consider me a "determinist" (given that I've stated that I think that free will is an illusion), so this reply might make a lot, some, or no sense at all.
As far as I can understand your point, you think that "we" are equivalent to the structure of our synapses, the electrical signals between these, and any other physical processes that alter the states of our synapses (such as gas concentrations in the brain). If this is the correct interpretation of your stance, then I can of course find no logical flaws in it. However, I do think that most people define "I" as only a strict subset of these signals/synapses/processes, or to put it in mental terms, consider the I to be those parts of our selves that we can reason about and communicate to others.
If your definition of "I" is taken to heart, one must deal with a string of consequences that conflict with everyday/common sense perception. For instance, it follows that I am in control of my dreams. Not only that, I also arrange them, and decide to forget them. Furthermore, when the I is seen as being the grand sum of the processes in the brain, notions such as "consciousness" and "subconsciousness" become vaguely defined. Similarly with "the will" (which we are debating here). So when your definition is accepted, the original question of whether the will is free loses its meaning.
When I'm stating that the will is not free, I'm equating the will with consciousness, and what I think it is bound by is the preferences and mental mechanisms of the subconsciousness. If one or more of these are "wrong" (say, your sex drive craves people of your own sex rather than those of the opposite, and your desire to fit in with others is low) then your choices will be "wrong" as well.

quote:
Originally posted by Renegade
What is to be gained by talking of a "real" state of choice that cannot ever be acheieved? Again, what is the practical difference between the choices we feel we are making and "real" choices?

There's something to be gained if you have a spiritual inclination, I think: If your choices are only illusionary, then God cannot give you guidance, but only control you directly by affecting your sense input. Furthermore, the notions of sin and repent become meaningless, as your consciousness has no possibility for vetoing along the way or initiating remorse for its actions anyway. So even if the question of real vs. percepted is irrelevant from many a philosophical viewpoint (including yours and mine), it does matter for some people.

quote:
Originally posted by Arbiter
Put another way: if we assume any sort of "free will" to exist in either case, then what we are "free from" must be external constraints. If we consider that internal constraints as well as external would preclude our will from being "free," then the limitation of our own intellect, among other things, would already exclude the possibility of a genuinely "free" will. Now, if our minds come to decisions deterministically, it is an internal constraint - an aspect of our state of being just as much as our limited ability to see all possible choices and, therefore, not a constraint which can be considered to be interfering with the "freedom" of our will.

Interesting post, although as with Renegade's I'm not following everything you say: How do you define "we", "the will", and "minds"? That is, is it on purpose that you use three words instead of just one? (The talk of external/internal constraints would make a lot more sense to me if I knew that).

As to the limitations caused by our own intellect, I don't think that these are what is normally at issue when the "free" will is debated. I think that "free" should be interpreted as "free within the boundaries of inherent abilities", just as we speak of a person as being "free" even if he can't teleport himself to Mars or turn invisible. So while I of course agree that lack of intelligence or time can force an individual to make suboptimal choices, I just don't see it as the point of Psy-T's question.

quote:
Originally posted by squirrelly
Great escape but it could still be considered a painful route can it not? Are we looking at decisions that bring pain only to yourself or to everyone around you? Because you might be bringing pain to yourself because you never know what the future might bring you, so in ending your life too quickly, you might actually be choosing the unwise, and more painful route. Again we have to consider if we are talking about psychological pain or physical pain. Because suicide might be a psychological escape but a very painful physical decision. Not only that but if we are talking about the whole situation rather than just the specifics of one person, you could be causing more pain for all of those around you, thus bringing about a more painful situation.

My answer would be the same as Psy-T's:
quote:
Originally posted by Psy-T
first of all, we're talking about pain/pleasure to yourself and only yourself, be it psychological or physical, immediate or ultimate.
whichever is more important to you at the very moment.

Last edited by trancaholic on Aug-12-2005 at 16:45

Old Post Aug-12-2005 15:32  Denmark
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Psy-T
Melody Klein



Registered: Jan 2003
Location: Haifa

quote:
Originally posted by Chris Larkin
We are constrained by instinct - the first to survive, the second to pass on genes. Pain and pleasure are just things that guide us on our way


you can surpass your instinct to breed though, and suicide cases prove that you can surpass the survival instinct aswell.

i think you cant surpass your desire for pleasure.


___________________
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Old Post Aug-12-2005 18:55  Israel
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Arbiter
Naked Power Organ



Registered: May 2002
Location:

quote:
Originally posted by Psy-T
very nice posts arbiter & renegade.
they address the issue of free will vs. physics completely and cover all grounds.

but what about free will vs. pleasure?
are we not always constrained to choose the option that we see as bringing us the most pleasure?


That depends upon how you define pleasure. Many things can be considered pleasurable in some sense, and when the definition of what constitutes pleasure is left as open-ended as possible the line between "what we see as bringing us the most pleasure" and "what we see as most likely to produce the desired outcome" begins to blur.

For example, the satisfaction one gets from eating one's favorite food and the satisfaction one gets from exacting revenge upon another person are clearly very different feelings. However, they could both be classified as "pleasure" in some sense.

In fact, the only thing that all these different types of pleasure seem to have in common is that they all arise from the fulfillment of some desire.

From this, we can instead hypothesize, "given a pre-existing set of desires, we are constrained(*) to choose the option which based on our cognitive and emotional analysis we perceive as being most beneficial to the fulfillment our set of desires as a whole with respect to their individual intensities and inter-dependencies."

It doesn't seem quite so simple put that way, and we haven't even gotten into analyzing the process(es) by which we form this set of desires to begin with.

(*)This "constraint" would be inherent to our minds and, therefore, could not accurately be said to make our "will" any less "free."

quote:
Originally posted by trancaholic
Interesting post, although as with Renegade's I'm not following everything you say: How do you define "we", "the will", and "minds"? That is, is it on purpose that you use three words instead of just one? (The talk of external/internal constraints would make a lot more sense to me if I knew that).

As to the limitations caused by our own intellect, I don't think that these are what is normally at issue when the "free" will is debated. I think that "free" should be interpreted as "free within the boundaries of inherent abilities", just as we speak of a person as being "free" even if he can't teleport himself to Mars or turn invisible. So while I of course agree that lack of intelligence or time can force an individual to make suboptimal choices, I just don't see it as the point of Psy-T's question.


We: Human beings. Our physical bodies and the internal processes they engage in.
Mind: That aspect of us (human beings) responsible for cognition, emotion, the storage of knowledge, and the consciousness that allows us to perceive things internal and external to our minds.
Will: That specific aspect of the mind responsible for conscious decision-making.

You are correct that the limitations of our own intellet is not normally at issue when "free" will is debated. That is, precisely, why I raised it as an issue. This is because, for the very same reason that free will and our limited intellect are not said to be at odds, neither are free will and determinism.

If we interpret "free" as "free within the boundaries of inherent abilities" as you suggest, then we are forced to draw the same conclusion. After all, if we make decisions deterministically, then that is also an inherent attribute. And, therefore, when we speak of "free will" we would be speaking of free will within the boundaries of our inherent abilities, including our deterministic nature. It is on this basis that I conclude that choices made if we operate deterministically are equally "free" to choices made if we operate non-deterministically in the context of a discussion regarding "free will."

Old Post Aug-12-2005 23:28 
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Psy-T
Melody Klein



Registered: Jan 2003
Location: Haifa

quote:
Originally posted by Arbiter
That depends upon how you define pleasure. Many things can be considered pleasurable in some sense, and when the definition of what constitutes pleasure is left as open-ended as possible the line between "what we see as bringing us the most pleasure" and "what we see as most likely to produce the desired outcome" begins to blur.

For example, the satisfaction one gets from eating one's favorite food and the satisfaction one gets from exacting revenge upon another person are clearly very different feelings. However, they could both be classified as "pleasure" in some sense.

In fact, the only thing that all these different types of pleasure seem to have in common is that they all arise from the fulfillment of some desire.

From this, we can instead hypothesize, "given a pre-existing set of desires, we are constrained(*) to choose the option which based on our cognitive and emotional analysis we perceive as being most beneficial to the fulfillment our set of desires as a whole with respect to their individual intensities and inter-dependencies."

It doesn't seem quite so simple put that way, and we haven't even gotten into analyzing the process(es) by which we form this set of desires to begin with.

(*)This "constraint" would be inherent to our minds and, therefore, could not accurately be said to make our "will" any less "free."


in other words, you support my theory, but disagree about the implications of it. correct?


___________________
People who own my ass: Citric Acid, Boomer187, Tribu, Sand Leaper,
Jackson, venomX, jamie, Renegade, Konjin, Akridrot, Miss Bliss.
Psy-T - Down The Rabbit Hole (400minute long acid set)

Old Post Aug-13-2005 17:33  Israel
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Renegade
____________/



Registered: May 2001
Location: Prague, Czech Republic

quote:
Originally posted by trancaholic
I'm not sure of what you mean, and most certainly not whether you consider me a "determinist" (given that I've stated that I think that free will is an illusion), so this reply might make a lot, some, or no sense at all.


My post was made generally and was never speficially directed at your posts. As for whether or not you're a determinist, while you don't have to be a determinist to reject the notion of free will, it does help.

quote:
As far as I can understand your point, you think that "we" are equivalent to the structure of our synapses, the electrical signals between these, and any other physical processes that alter the states of our synapses (such as gas concentrations in the brain). If this is the correct interpretation of your stance, then I can of course find no logical flaws in it. However, I do think that most people define "I" as only a strict subset of these signals/synapses/processes, or to put it in mental terms, consider the I to be those parts of our selves that we can reason about and communicate to others.


But when you examine the neurological nature of consciousness, you'll find that there is no fixed place in which the "I" resides. The "I" - that is, the sensation of "I" - is simply the composite result of different areas of the brain firing in a certain way. The "I" that listens to music, is inherently different to the "I" playing sport which is inherently different again from the "I" which writes these posts. In this sense, there is no fixed "I" and consciousness is simply the sensation we experience when different parts of the brain function in tandem.

This is why I tend to view consciousness and the Freudian "Ego" as a process rather than as an entity in itself. This is a post I wrote on another forum, and while it deals more with the impossiblity of heaven and the impermanency of the self, I think it's relevent to what I'm talking about here (i.e. the nature of consciousness):

quote:
The most important part of understanding death, for me at least, is that consciousness (that is, who we are) is not an entity, it's a process. We are not our brains, we are the processes that occur within those brains. As such, once the process comes to an end (that is, the electrical and chemical impulses within our brain cease) so does consciousness and - as such - our very existence.

Think of it like fire. As material combusts, we witness the emergence of flames. These flames, however, are not really what we could classify as objects or entities in themelves, they're merely the manifestation of a process (in this case, the combustion of matter). Now when the fire is extinguished and the flames disappear, they haven't really "gone" anywhere, it's just that the process (the combustion of matter) has ceased and with it the physical manifestation of that process (that is, the fire). In this sense, it doesn't really make sense to ask where fire goes after the process of combustion ceases, as the fire is itself just the manifestation of this very process - does this make sense?

Therefore, if we think of consciousness the same way, once the neurological processes stop, so too does consciousness. It doesn't go anywhere, because it never really existed (in the conventional sense of the word, at least) at all. When we die our brains cease their internal combustion and the flames of consciousness are left forever extinguished. Unless there is a way to make these biological processes go on for ever (which there isn't), there isn't really anywhere for consciousness to "go" once these processes do cease, anymore than there is anywhere for fire to go once the processes of combustion cease. I know it might not make a lot of sense, especially since I'm not much good at explaining scienctific stuff (should... have sent... a poet!) but if you can get your head around thinking about consciousness in this way, then issue of human mortality probably won't seem quite so vexing.


quote:
If your definition of "I" is taken to heart, one must deal with a string of consequences that conflict with everyday/common sense perception. For instance, it follows that I am in control of my dreams.


Depending on how you define "I", the self most definitely controls dreams. They are not controlled by a conscious self (as you are, by definition, unconscious when they happen) but they are still "created" by the processes of certain parts of your brain.

With regards to free-will, you cannot "choose" the nature of your dreams, but - neurologically at least - they are, depending on your definition anyway, most certainly controlled by the self.

quote:
Not only that, I also arrange them, and decide to forget them.


Forgetting dreams is more of a physical / biological issue than a free will issue. You cannot choose to forget your dreams (which you will if you awake more than a few seconds after REM sleep) any more than you can choose to digest the food resting in your stomach. This process is still ultimately controlled by your brain, but you do not have any "choice" in the matter.

quote:
Furthermore, when the I is seen as being the grand sum of the processes in the brain, notions such as "consciousness" and "subconsciousness" become vaguely defined.


Precisely.

As I said, consciousness is not fixed. It is the sensation acheived when different parts of the brain fire in tandem. Our thought process may be influenced by parts of the brain that we cannot directly "sense" and this forms the basis of much of the body of psychological theory (particularly early psychological theory, like those of Freud and Jung). Given this, the conscious decisions we make - as the determinists argue - are not directly under our conscious control, but if you define consciousness as the pattern of neurological activity that - at any given point - allows us to be "aware" of what it is that we are doing, then choices, at the very least, are made "consciously". The determinists argue that choice is an illusion because we cannot directly influence all the factors (neurological or otherwise) that go into us making a choice, but I would argue that this is irrelevent. The self (or, rather, the processes that compose the self) cannot choose in the sense that we cannot transcend that which we deterministically are, but the self can, nonetheless, make conscious choices. It is this consciousness, for me, that make choice real and I do not believe that the facticity of human nature precludes the possiblity of free choice.

In other words, if consciousness is the result of all these neurological factors, then the fact that we cannot transcend our deterministic facticity and alter these processes does not alter the possibility of free choice, so long as we can say that these choices are, indeed, made consciously (that is, we are "aware" of the choices we are making). If consciousness is the result of neurological processes and choices are the result of the same neurological processes, how can anyone say that "we" (that is, our conscious self) are not making these decisions ourselves?

quote:
Similarly with "the will" (which we are debating here). So when your definition is accepted, the original question of whether the will is free loses its meaning.
When I'm stating that the will is not free, I'm equating the will with consciousness, and what I think it is bound by is the preferences and mental mechanisms of the subconsciousness.


I think you're creating too great a schism between the conscious and the subconscious. As I said, we may not be aware of absolutely every mental process that is involved in a decision - and we certainly don't have autonomous control over the nature of these processes - but we still make that decision consciously, otherwise it wouldn't be a decision at all, it would be the action of base instinct.

As for whether a decision is entirely free? It depends on your definition of "free", I suppose. We are not - and by definition cannot be - free from our environment and the mental processes that compose consciousness (and therefore the processes that dictate conscious choice) when we make a decision. However, given that our facticity cannot be transcended, again, I can only ask, if conscious choice is merely "illusory" choice, then what is the nature of "free" choice? What, practically, is the difference? Every decision that is made by a human - or even any decision made by a being that exists beyond our own anthropic contraints (like a deity, for instance) - is still going to be made entirely within the nature of that being. Insofar as a being cannot transcend its own facticity (how can it escape what it is?) then, by the arguments of the determinists, free choice cannot be real. But if real choice is impossible, how can it, in any sense, considered real in the first place?

As I suggested earlier, I still have never been given a satisfactory answer by those who deny the possiblity of free will, as to what the difference between "real" choice and "illusory" choice actually is.

quote:
If one or more of these are "wrong" (say, your sex drive craves people of your own sex rather than those of the opposite, and your desire to fit in with others is low) then your choices will be "wrong" as well.


Have you ever read Sartre? This sounds suspiciously like his argument against the existential authenticity of homosexuality...

In any case, coming from the angle of existential authenticity, if you are conscious that a certain mode of action is wrong, then to act in that fashion regardless is to act in a state of mauvaise fois or, in English, in "bad-faith". In other words, as much as you can argue that an action was encouraged by factors beyond your control (be they neurological, environmental or anything else) so long as you are conscious that the action is wrong, then there can be no excuses. And this, ultimately, is what I'm saying: consciousness of choice amounts, to some degree at least, to freedom of choice. If you are aware, before performing an action, that the action is wrong, then to perform that action is wrong or, at best, "inauthentic".

quote:
There's something to be gained if you have a spiritual inclination, I think: If your choices are only illusionary, then God cannot give you guidance, but only control you directly by affecting your sense input. Furthermore, the notions of sin and repent become meaningless, as your consciousness has no possibility for vetoing along the way or initiating remorse for its actions anyway. So even if the question of real vs. percepted is irrelevant from many a philosophical viewpoint (including yours and mine), it does matter for some people.


I'm not saying that the differences between real and perceived choices are irrelevent, I'm saying that, for all intents and purposes, they are indistinguishable. Again, if you believe, as you have stated, that free will is an illusion ("I think that free will is an illusion") then you're going to need to define what real choice is, what illusory choice is and how, exactly and in practical application, they differ.


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Old Post Aug-15-2005 19:56  Australia
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Psy-T
Melody Klein



Registered: Jan 2003
Location: Haifa

quote:
Originally posted by Renegade
I'm not saying that the differences between real and perceived choices are irrelevent, I'm saying that, for all intents and purposes, they are indistinguishable. Again, if you believe, as you have stated, that free will is an illusion ("I think that free will is an illusion") then you're going to need to define what real choice is, what illusory choice is and how, exactly and in practical application, they differ.


if, and only if you can choose an option that will cause you more pain in your opinion (as long as you're not intrested in experiencing that pain), which is something i dont believe you can, you would be able to define a free choice as one that doesnt take pleasure/pain into account.

and that would be a major difference.


___________________
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Old Post Aug-16-2005 09:55  Israel
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Renegade
____________/



Registered: May 2001
Location: Prague, Czech Republic

quote:
Originally posted by Psy-T
if, and only if you can choose an option that will cause you more pain in your opinion (as long as you're not intrested in experiencing that pain), which is something i dont believe you can, you would be able to define a free choice as one that doesnt take pleasure/pain into account.

and that would be a major difference.


Yeah, but it all comes back to how you define "pleasure". If you argue that we are always condemned to choose the option which brings us the most pleasure, then it's pretty easy to make the post-hoc rationalisation that any action we commit to - regardless of how aware we are, beforehand, that it will lead to some degree of pain or suffering - is the most "pleasurable" or "desirable" of all available choices. That is, even if we commit to a superficially painful action (say, taking a bullet for the president) we only do so because the alternative (allowing the president to take a bullet for himself) will bring us less pleasure. This, however, strikes me as circular, tautological reasoning: merely because we have committed to an action, I don't necessarily think we have committed to it because we think it will, in the long run, bring us the most "pleasure". If you argue that every choice is made with the aim of bringing us the most possible pleasure, then it's pretty easy to contort the definition of "pleasure" to support this conclusion. However, give me a fixed definition of pleasure (without referring to choice or will, which would constitute circular reasoning) and I'm fairly sure I could give you an example of how a choice could be made that eschews pleasure, rather than seeking it.

Having said all this, I think there's a lot of parallels that can be drawn between your view of free-will and Schopenhauer's own conception of "will". Schopenhauer believed that the "will" which drove the activity and world-view of human beings was irrational (that is, not guided by any conscious reason), egoistic (that is, entirely self-serving) and always sought pleasure (or, in Schopenhauerian terminology, an "absense of suffering"). Ultimately, I do believe that human action is, for the most part, irrational (how many actions do you commit to on a daily basis that you thoroughly think through or even think about at all? How much thought can you remember putting into all the actions you've committed over the past hour, for instance?), egoistic (it's only natural to look out for oneself afterall) and pleasure-seeking (why would we actively seek out anything that brought us suffering?). However, Shopenhauer also believed that this "will" could be usurped, if you like, by conscious reason and it was this assumption that ultimately formed the basis of his theory of moral conduct (for Schopenhauer, moral conduct is that form of conduct which ignores the impulses of the "will" and benefits others via its self-sacrificial nature). In other words, while the "will" is fixed (as you said, it is in our nature to always seek pleasure) the "will" can still be overridden by conscious reason, which goes back to what I was saying earlier about conscious choice equalling free choice. So long as we are aware of the choices we are making, then I believe that the choices are being made freely.

If this is illusory choice, then, while it may not be inherently "perfect" or free from deterministic influences, it's still the best we can aspire to. I am, however, on this issue, still awaiting an adequate defintion of "real" choice.


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Old Post Aug-17-2005 16:10  Australia
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quote:
Originally posted by Renegade
Yeah, but it all comes back to how you define "pleasure". If you argue that we are always condemned to choose the option which brings us the most pleasure, then it's pretty easy to make the post-hoc rationalisation that any action we commit to - regardless of how aware we are, beforehand, that it will lead to some degree of pain or suffering - is the most "pleasurable" or "desirable" of all available choices. That is, even if we commit to a superficially painful action (say, taking a bullet for the president) we only do so because the alternative (allowing the president to take a bullet for himself) will bring us less pleasure. This, however, strikes me as circular, tautological reasoning: merely because we have committed to an action, I don't necessarily think we have committed to it because we think it will, in the long run, bring us the most "pleasure". If you argue that every choice is made with the aim of bringing us the most possible pleasure, then it's pretty easy to contort the definition of "pleasure" to support this conclusion. However, give me a fixed definition of pleasure (without referring to choice or will, which would constitute circular reasoning) and I'm fairly sure I could give you an example of how a choice could be made that eschews pleasure, rather than seeking it.

Having said all this, I think there's a lot of parallels that can be drawn between your view of free-will and Schopenhauer's own conception of "will". Schopenhauer believed that the "will" which drove the activity and world-view of human beings was irrational (that is, not guided by any conscious reason), egoistic (that is, entirely self-serving) and always sought pleasure (or, in Schopenhauerian terminology, an "absense of suffering"). Ultimately, I do believe that human action is, for the most part, irrational (how many actions do you commit to on a daily basis that you thoroughly think through or even think about at all? How much thought can you remember putting into all the actions you've committed over the past hour, for instance?), egoistic (it's only natural to look out for oneself afterall) and pleasure-seeking (why would we actively seek out anything that brought us suffering?). However, Shopenhauer also believed that this "will" could be usurped, if you like, by conscious reason and it was this assumption that ultimately formed the basis of his theory of moral conduct (for Schopenhauer, moral conduct is that form of conduct which ignores the impulses of the "will" and benefits others via its self-sacrificial nature). In other words, while the "will" is fixed (as you said, it is in our nature to always seek pleasure) the "will" can still be overridden by conscious reason, which goes back to what I was saying earlier about conscious choice equalling free choice. So long as we are aware of the choices we are making, then I believe that the choices are being made freely.

If this is illusory choice, then, while it may not be inherently "perfect" or free from deterministic influences, it's still the best we can aspire to. I am, however, on this issue, still awaiting an adequate defintion of "real" choice.


in accordance with my (or schopenhauer's ) theory, "real" choice is actually one that doesnt seem real at all. the only choice that might be free from the pleasure/pain constraint would be an option between objects that are completely equal to each other, and to which you can not equate different values.


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Old Post Aug-17-2005 16:24  Israel
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