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| quote: | Originally posted by George Smiley
I probably could if you weren't so bloody frustrating!
I can forgive you for not cottoning onto what I was getting at as I didn't explain it well. When I said "against governments" I meant not committed by governments. (ie. when I said only one of those definitions says it is against governments I mean it could be interpreted as not being committed by a government)
Still, none of the definitions states that terrorism (as defined by that dictionary) cannot be committed by a government (state). You then say that governments cannot coerce civilians into political change, and by political change you are saying governmental (you are saying how can a government coerce civilians into changin the government, right?)
But why does coercion have to be for change? Coercion merely means compel or force (from Collins). So why cant a government coerce civilans (ie oppressed civilians) into preserving the status quo? Coercion does not mean change.
Lets go through each definition and see if they can be applied to governments (seeing as you seem to have no objections to the majority of the definitions, and neither do I)
This definition does not exclude states/goverments does it?
This definition certainly does not! In fact, according to this definition, most terrorists would be terrorists!
This does not exclude governments/states
This does not exclude governments/states
Hey! This excludes governments (I'm tempted to say this could include governments if they were at war, but then they would be attacking another government as well as civilians, and the definition says the target is only civilians)
Few! Back to definitions that do not, by definition, exclude governments or states
Another definition that would mean most terrorist acts would be carried out by governments/states
This definition does not exclude governments/states
So, out of the 10, only 2 do, by definition, exclude goverments or states (and if we acknowledge the fact that those two definitions are actually the same then we have 7 that do not exclude governments compared to the 1 that does)
However, what is even more interesting about those ten definitions that you seem to have no problem with, is that none of them state that terrorism must be for political change only. In fact, none of them even mention political change at all!
Like I said, why do you equate coerce with change? No, you are entirely right, a state cannot coerce its civilians for political change (unless you can count violent revolutions such as the French, or Russian in the years after the fall of the Tzar) as they would be for changing themselves. But governments can coerce their civilians into keeping the status quo, which every oppressive government in history has done. Can you show me the definition that states that an act of terrorism must be for political change only? Or if you cant find one, can you tell me why, by definition, terrorism can only be for politcal change (coercion for political change)
There is a reason you cannot accept that states can committ acts that will be considered terrorism, otherwise you would have accepted that fact as very very few of the definitions we have looked at have excluded governments from their definitions (in fact, the whole "coerce for political change" was something added by you?) Therefore, I assume there is a personal reason for this?
On the subject of the word "state-terrorism"...
If you accept that states committ terrorism, and that this is different than other forms of terrorism (which is why we stick 'state' on the front) then would it not be logical that these other forms of terrorism can be labelled "non-state-terrorism" under the same umberella as terrorism?
The articles were useful to show you why this thread will never conclude in the way you want it to. We will never agree on this as nobody in the world has succeded. I agree it would be useful, but it will never happen (and I believe this is most probably due to the state vs non-state argument we are having) |
Alright, I'll give a real response to avoid this turning into a flame war, but I'm not going to waste a lot of time on it.
George, your logic is that unless an entity is specifically excluded from a given definition, then ipso facto that entity is capable of fulfilling that definition.
That logic is patently false, as there is no dictionary ever written that makes such explicit exclusions. When specific situations are encountered, common sense must be used in order to determine whether or not an entity fits the definition. My logic, which you have failed to provide a rational flaw in, clearly outlines this common sense. For the sake of convenience, I'll repeat it again.
Terrorism, by definition, aims to have demands granted by a political authority with the power to do so. If we reverse the roles, we arrive at a logical impossibility: since the government has a higher level of political authority than its own citizens, it cannot possibly coerce those citizens for a political reason. It does not matter whether the coercion would be for change or for "non-change" - in either instance, it is solely the governing body and not its citizens that are capable of providing that change or preserving that status quo.
Try to visualize this role reversal and you will understand what I am referring to. Imagine you are the terrorist, and want to have your demands granted by some specific authority. Now imagine that you are innocent and they are making these demands from you. Does this make sense? Are you capable of granting these demands?
A government may be fully capable of committing terrorism against other governments or governing bodies, but ipso facto cannot do so against its own citizens. Failing to accept this logic would make the definitions of terrorism and coercion so broad as to include traditional means of law enforcement and court proceedings.
You are looking for something specific in the definitions, but the definitions are just "first principles" - it is perfectly acceptable to use logic, as long as that logic is sound and free of fallacies, in order to make valid extensions of the definition that might exclude certain entities not excluded by the definition itself.
The word for violent and/or totalitarian governments is oppressive. NOT terrorist.
I'd imagine that the reason this is "frustrating" to you is that I am using objective logic to construct my arguments, which do not support your subjective opinions. Unfortunately, frustration doesn't make your point any more valid.
___________________
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