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Since I don't know what I am talking about that salvation is NOT of the law,could you kindly explain to me what these verses mean? Please read them all and explain them instead of telling me how ignorant I am.
What does this mean?
Ga 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.
What does this mean?
Ro 3:28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.
What does this mean?
Ga 3:13 Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree:
What does this mean?
Ro 3:20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.
What does this mean?
Ro 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
What does this mean?
Ga 3:18 For if the inheritance be of the law, it is no more of promise: but God gave it to Abraham by promise.
Ro 8:4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.
Php 3:9 ¶ And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith:
Ga 3:5 He therefore that ministereth to you the Spirit, and worketh miracles among you, doeth he it by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?
Conclusion:
Do you mean to say that these verses are lying and that you are right?
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