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| quote: | Originally posted by Epicurus
I don't know if I speak only on my behalf or also on George's here (as I am too lazy right now to go and see George's specific opinion here), but the word for a state oppressing their own citizenry is "oppression". HOWEVER, a state can "terrorize" OTHER people or populations (not the state's own people), which is the way I uderstand state terrorism. Now I don't know where George falls exactly, but perhaps that might be his point of contention. |
Yes, I made this point in the beginning and I still stand by it. 
| quote: | Originally posted by George Smiley
DigiNut...
What is state-terrorism? Is there such a concept? |
It's not in the dictionary, no. We could define one, if we wanted, and if we were able to get everyone to agree upon it - I guess it would be a type of particularly violent oppression, perhaps? But we have to keep in mind, still, that state terrorism, if we choose to define it, is not the same as conventional terrorism. And besides, if we're using the term to mean something synonymous with violent state oppression, then why not just use the term violent state oppression? The only reason I can see for calling it "state terrorism" is to attempt to equate (or equivocate) the term with conventional terrorism and have them considered as moral equivalents.
However, even if you believe that state oppression and conventional terrorism are morally equivalent, that does not make it sensible to define them as equivalents, since objective definitions should be free of morality. Rather, it should be up to the individual to determine whether he or she thinks that state oppression is morally equivalent to conventional terrorism. Referring to state oppression as state terrorism solely on the basis of a belief that oppression is morally equivalent to terrorism is, well, a classic case of equivocation.
| quote: | | Oh, and the only reason I went through those definitions and proved to you that they do not exclude governments was because you kept on saying that by definition, governments cannot commit acts of terrorism. |
I did not say by the definition alone, I said as a logical consequence of that definition, because otherwise we arrive at a logical paradox.
| quote: | | The reason people believe states can commit terrorism is because WE CAN PROVIDE SPECIFIC EXAMPLES OF ACTIONS COMMITTED BY STATES/GOVERNMENTS THAT CAN FIT INTO THE DEFINITIONS OF TERRORISM WE HAVE SEEN IN THIS THREAD |
No, the specific examples fit into *your* *subjective* definition, not the definition here, for reasons I have already explained. If we can't even come up with a hypothetical example of a government committing terrorism against its own people, how could we hope to come up with a real one? Use a hypothetical example, and show that it meets all the criteria specified in the original definition.
| quote: | Fair enough...
Oppression means subjugate by cruelty or force (Collins)
The key word there I am picking up on is force
One of the key factors of 'terrorism', as stated by DigiNut in his original post is coercion
Coercion means to compel or force (Collins)
Therefore, if force is a defining characteristic of 'oppression' AND 'coercion', then oppression can be the same as coercion, and therefore, oppression can be a factor of terrorism if coercion is a factor of terrorism....
Therefore, if states can be oppressive, and if oppression is a characteristic of terrorism, then states can commit acts of terrorism...there...simple!!! |
Oh my god, I'm sorry but that's TERRIBLE logic!!!
You have picked one word out of each definition (force), taken it completely out of context, and stated that because both oppression and coercion involve force, they are therefore synonyms!
This is a textbook case of the Fallacy of the Undistributed Middle.
Try again!
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Last edited by DigiNut on Apr-05-2004 at 23:48
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