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| quote: | Originally posted by Zeiter
I never said there wasn't any influence, I just said it's not from the same background....it's like if I was going to tell that English uses some Japanese words, so it must come from the same origin....by the way..im fluent in Spanish so if you think tricking me, it ain't working..it's not because the Mors conquered a part of Spain that it means arabic and spanish have the same origins..because spanish comes from a vulgarised iberian latin which itself was influenced by greek and secondly, when I mean in arabic + 1 or + 2....ex: You are with your female friend Carla. When I talk to you and carla, I will use the You + conjugating the verb a certain way. If you are with your friend Joe, You still are the you + conjugating the verb in a different way than when I did when u were with Carla because Carla was a female and Joe is a male......things like that make it difficult.. | I KNOW it doesn't stem from the same background, hence me asking as to how it d.i.f.f.e.r.ed How am I tricking you? Are you saying the yo,tu,usted/el/ella/vos/nos/Uds isn't used in conjugation? By the way, it's Moors
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