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Heck, I'm on a break and I really should go back to work but you're talking about one of my favourite subjects here - language 
Keep one thing in mind - we all say the same things, we just say them in different ways (i.e. different languages). For example, "I saw" in English. In Portuguese (which is grammatically a lot similar to French, which you mentioned), we could say "Eu vi (I went)" or "Eu via (I went)" (among other forms). We all know Romance languages (French, Spanish, Portuguese, Italian,...) have many time tenses.
"Eu vi" means "I saw". That simple. I saw a car would be "Eu vi um carro". But let's suppose it was a repeated action and in the past, you used to see a car. You'd then say "Eu via um carro (todo dia)" (I saw a car every day). This would give the impression that the Portuguese language is more flexible, wouldn't it? But no, it's not - in both languages, I said what I wanted to say, and both were able to give enough information so nothing was lost in translation. Even the word Brazilians brag about "Saudade" as being a word that only exists in Portuguese (which is false, because it exists in Romanian) could be translated into English as "the feeling of missing someone". Long? Yes, but I did say it. Not to mention the lack of gender in nouns is often annoying in English for us, but you guys find it also strange that we use "feminine" declensions for tables and "masculine" declensions for cars so...
Then, let's move on to Russian. Russian is a fun language, you see? While we, Romance-languages-speaking people like to conjugate verbs, they have this thing with nouns and adjectives and whatnot. It's called cases. For example.
Maria sees Vania
Vania sees Maria
Simple, isn't it? In order to reverse the action, you also reversed the words. In Russian, you could just do it like this:
Maria videt Vaniu
Mariu videt Vania
You could say Russian is more flexible because the words are able of "telling you" what their role in the sentence is (subject, object,...) but it doesn't mean that English can't express a similar thought - it's just a different mechanism.
Simply put, there's no such thing as "most difficult language", "most flexible language" or "easiest language to learn" in an objective basis. I did get easy examples, which might lead you to the question: what about philosophy?
Well, according to the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis, there is a systematic relationship between the grammatical categories of the language a person speaks and how that person both understands the world and behaves in it. For example, I perceive "light blue" and "dark blue" as blue, whereas a Russian-speaking individual would claim they're as different as red and pink. But the essence is the same. Every philosopher will express his/her thoughts in a way more suitable to what his mother language can express, but it has nothing to do with flexibility whatsoever.
I'd go on but I really can't. Hopefully this could be of some help. Sorry if it's too confusing. Bye lads.
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