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"Trickle-Up" Economics?
Saw a mention of Reaganism in the other thread and thought I'd start up this topic based on an article (see here) I read at work today:
| quote: | Dean Maki, an economist at JP Morgan Chase & Co, estimates consumer spending grew at a 6.1 per cent annual rate between February and August, the fastest pace in 16 years. And upper-income households, he says, were the primary drivers of that surge.
"Other households are getting tax cuts and their spending is rising, but the biggest percentage gains in income and spending are being done by the rich," says Maki, a former Federal Reserve researcher who spent years studying how consumer spending responds to changes in household wealth. |
Seems like the tax-cuts to the rich may be helping in some way then.
Essentially, when Bush introduced these tax-cuts, he had in mind the distinctly neo-liberal concept of "trickle-down" economics: that is, if you give tax breaks to the rich, they'll be more inclined to spend more, which means more money in the economy, which means - supposedly at least - everybody wins. Correct me if I'm wrong, but this is one of the lasting tennets of economic Reaganism.
Now, as these figures show, the tax-cuts may be assisting the economy in some way (spending is up, and most of it's coming from the upper-income bracket) but it got me thinking (it was a slow day at work) just how valid this trickle-down principle really was, despite these positive figures.
It's taken as a given that consumer spending patterns are directly related to net income. The more money someone has, simply, the more money they are likely to spend. On the other hand, the proportion of net-income directly reinvested back into the economy becomes smaller the higher up on the income bracket we go (there's an economic term for this - something lag maybe? - that I'd be able to look up if I hadn't sold my Economics text book). If we have a look at real-life examples, this principle becomes demonstrably true. Any extra money the poor receive is spent fairly quickly on items of necessity - clothes, food, bills and so forth. Those in higher income brackets, however, tend to invest a far larger proportion of their income in stocks, bonds, interest-building savings accounts and so forth. This is money, in many ways, that is taken out of the economy.
Or, as the article puts it:
| quote: | | Economic theory holds that wealthy households, already flush with liquidity that they could use for consumption at any time, are likely to sock away the bulk of any gains from tax cuts into savings. By contrast, theory holds that lower-income households save very little, and instead plough cash windfalls right back into the economy in the form of spending on necessities. |
So here we have a situation where high-income tax-cuts have stimulated the economy because - contrary to expectation in many ways - the rich are investing a comparitively high proportion of money gleaned from the tax-cuts straight back into the economy. Instead of just leaving the money in a savings account (which takes money out of the "liquidity pool" - that's the right term isn't it?) they've spent it, reinvesting money into the economy far more efficiently than the government would have been able to had they kept the money instead. But here's where my problem lies:
If "trickle-down" economics can be shown to work in this way, is there any reason why "trickle-up" economics couldn't work just as well? That is, instead of giving the money to the rich to invest back into the economy, we gave it to the poor instead? Firstly, far more of that money will be reinvested back into the economy more quickly than in the case of the rich, by mere economic necessity. Similarly, while the rich would be more likely to spend their money on luxury goods imported from overseas, the poor would be more likely to spend the money on necessities, usually produced domestically. So, low-income tax cuts have two benefits:
1) Higher proportion of these cuts reinvested into the economy imediately.
2) Less chance of importing goods from overseas, which merely passes on the benefits of the cuts to other nations and weakens the domestic currency in the process.
When I think about it in this way it makes sense. Is there any reason why "trickle-up" economics wouldn't work as successfully as "trickle-down" economics?
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