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A Weird Math Problem ....
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King_Mack
Im trying to prove to my friend that what he's saying makes no sense. In any case, here's the argument...can someone refute it?


Read:- 'a2' below as "a squared," 'b2' below as "b squared," etc.

If a = b (so I say) [a = b]
And we multiply both sides by a
Then we'll see that a2 [a2 = ab]
When with ab compared
Are the same. Remove b2. OK? [a2-b2 = ab-b2]

Both sides we will factorize. See?
Now each side contains a - b. [(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)]
We'll divide through by a
Minus b and olé

a + b = b. Oh whoopee! [a+b = b]
But since I said a = b
b + b = b you'll agree? [b+b = b]


So if b = 1
Then this sum I have done [1+1 = 1]
Proves that 2 = 1. Q.E.D.


good luck :) I only argued on grounds that he keeps assuming hehe but that argument aint good enough..
mmilo
if a=b,
then a-b=0
and you cannot divide by zero.
King_Mack
i took that approach, but he's not too impressed by that hrm...

is there anything else you can see that flaws from what he presented? I mean..from first glance, it seems mathematically correct(his induction)....but theres something in there that doesnt make sens. I cant put my finger on it though, unless the only thign is the division issue..
{b.s.e.}
I think your problem is right here: Remove b2. OK? [a2-b2 = ab-b2]

I don't even know where b^2 comes from. We have a^2, as well as ab. Even if you had b^2 you cannot subtract that from ab since they are not like terms. I think you need to make substitutions so that your algerbra is suitable. But of course, once you make subs, everything will equal zero and will render your equation void. :D

I hate math, I'm going to play some chess. :disbelief
Perfect_Cheezit
just wait for Noisician, he'll set things straight
_Nut_
(original eq)
a = b
(both sides mult through by a)
a^2 = ab

When with ab compared
a = b
ab = b^2

Are the same. Remove b2. OK? [a2-b2 = ab-b2]


a^2 = ab = b^2
(division to remove the middle term)
a/b = 0 = b/a

where a/b = -b/a
then
a^2/b = -b

a^2 = -1

therefore

a = sqrt(i) [you cannot take the sqrt of negative nums so you have to bust out the imaginary numbers algebra]




you were coming up with some odd . saying things factored and all that. following through the begining this is what i computed. Are you trying make up some theorum of sorts? if you are you need to lay off the green.
DasBrotBesser
you're forgetting that ab=a^2=b^2 since a=b

hence it should be a^2=ab=B^2
remove b^2
therefore a^2-b^2=b^2-b^2=0

but even without that, a-b=0, so then it would be
(a+b)(0)=b(0)=0

so then your last equation would be 0=0
DrUg_Tit0
quote:
Originally posted by King_Mack

Now each side contains a - b. [(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)]
We'll divide through by a
Minus b and olé


As mmilo said earlier, the division by 0 is where the flaw lies. First you have (a+b)*0=b*0=0, and so far the argument is a correct one. But after the division, you basically get (a+b)*0/0=b*0/0 which is not defined because 0/0 can be equal to anything.
Flyboy217
quote:
Originally posted by King_Mack
i took that approach, but he's not too impressed by that hrm...

is there anything else you can see that flaws from what he presented? I mean..from first glance, it seems mathematically correct(his induction)....but theres something in there that doesnt make sens. I cant put my finger on it though, unless the only thign is the division issue..


This explanation is correct. Dividing by zero invalidates the equation. Your friend's "proof" belongs to a whole class of such spurious explanations of false equalities.
whiskers
quote:
Originally posted by DrUg_Tit0
As mmilo said earlier, the division by 0 is where the flaw lies. First you have (a+b)*0=b*0=0, and so far the argument is a correct one. But after the division, you basically get (a+b)*0/0=b*0/0 which is not defined because 0/0 can be equal to anything.



i confirm that too, there are a bunch of problems in computer & math textbooks that rely on this "division by 0" approach to have you find the error in the algorithm.

zarathustra
Division by zero is illegal.
astroboy
quote:
Originally posted by King_Mack
i took that approach, but he's not too impressed by that hrm...


Impressed or not, you simply CAN NOT divide by zero. As soon as he does that his proof becomes invalid.
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