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Time Travel Question
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| kadomony |
If we accept the "Infinite Worlds" theory, going back in time should enable us to land in a timeline where everything is similar to the one we just left (save for the fact that there exists a time-traveling you.) However, since there are an infinite number of worlds at any given point, what is the probability of landing in said timeline?
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| msz |
| of the infinite divided by tight anus |
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| DJ Damerchi |
| i am now your father. |
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| tachobg |
I think the trick would be how you define 'similar'. If you have an infinite number of possible outcomes, the probability of any one of them is essentially zero. But if you take a 'large enough' group of them by also including similar outcomes, you might be something nonzero. For example, take a probability distribution that looks like a bell curve. The probability of any given value occurring is 0 (the area under the curve is 0, since it's an area under a single point). But the probability of a given value or /similar/ values occurring is nonzero if you think of the similar values as forming an interval around the original given value. So, the area under the curve is nonzero because it's an area under an interval.
/math |
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| nchs09 |
| my name is Alberto Afaik. |
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| kadomony |
| quote: | Originally posted by tachobg
the probability of any one of them is essentially zero. |
But it wouldn't ever be 0. Since the limit of 1/x approaches 0 as x approaches infinity, the result would still be a real number, correct? |
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| hundred |
| quote: | Originally posted by msz
of the infinite divided by tight anus |
epic laughing |
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| yukii |
| quote: | Originally posted by msz
of the infinite divided by tight anus |
:stongue: :stongue: :stongue: :stongue: :stongue: |
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| Joss Weatherby |
| quote: | Originally posted by kadomony
If we accept the "Infinite Worlds" theory, going back in time should enable us to land in a timeline where everything is similar to the one we just left (save for the fact that there exists a time-traveling you.) However, since there are an infinite number of worlds at any given point, what is the probability of landing in said timeline?
Also:
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I miss BnB so much... lol that crazy little bastard. :mad: |
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| nefardec |
| quote: | Originally posted by kadomony
If we accept the "Infinite Worlds" theory, going back in time should enable us to land in a timeline where everything is similar to the one we just left (save for the fact that there exists a time-traveling you.) However, since there are an infinite number of worlds at any given point, what is the probability of landing in said timeline?
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consider the possibility that there is no such thing as time, that time is a perceptual effect of physical and mental conditioning. Anyone who has dreamed or tripped or almost died knows what I am talking about.
Theoretically 'being' in any time would be simply a matter of looking the right way. |
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